NYC Shooter Who Targeted NFL Offices Posthumously Diagnosed with Traumatic Brain Injury CTE

Photo by Kyle Mazza/NurPhoto via AP

The New York City shooter who targeted the NFL’s offices in Manhattan has been posthumously diagnosed with the traumatic brain injury CTE.

In late July, 27-year-old Shane Tamura opened fire in an office building at 345 Park Avenue. Tamura shot multiple people in the building’s lobby before trying to take the elevator to get to the NFL’s offices. It was later revealed that Tamura took the wrong elevator bank.

Tamura killed four people — including one police officer — before turning the rifle on himself and dying of a self-inflicted gunshot wound to the chest.

Police later recovered a note from Tamura’s body. In the note, he made numerous references to the NFL and expressed his belief that he suffered from chronic traumatic encephalopathy — better known as CTE. The condition is caused by extensive head trauma.

Former New England Patriots tight end Aaron Hernandez, who was convicted of killing someone and later took his own life in prison, was also diagnosed with CTE.

According to a Friday report from ESPN, New York’s chief medical examiner confirmed Tamura’s suspicions about his condition were correct:

Tamura, 27, had claimed in a note found in his wallet following the shooting that he believed he had CTE and wanted his brain tested for it after his death. The medical examiner’s office finding determined “unambiguous evidence” of CTE in Tamura’s brain tissue. The testing determined Tamura suffered from “low-stage CTE.” CTE can only officially be diagnosed after death.

The report added that Tamura had played football from the age of 6 and continued through high school.